The option includes 45 tasks, of which 27 entry-level test tasks with one correct answer (a correctly
completed task is assessed at 1 point), 14 intermediate-level test tasks with several correct answers
(a correctly completed task is assessed at 3 points), 4 advanced-level tasks with a detailed answer
(a correctly completed task is assessed at 6-9 points).
Biotechnology & Applied Microbiology
Task 1: Bioobjects of phytobiotechnology include:
a) Protozoan cells b) Bacteriophages c) Ascomycete cells d) Algae cells e) Bacteria cells Entry level (1 point)
Task 2: Changes in the nucleotide sequence of the DNA of a biological object as a result of the movement of a DNA transposon section are:
a) Phenotype change - modification b) Mutation with a change in the number of chromosomes c) Gene mutation d) Deletion e) Chromosomal mutation Entry level (1 point)
Task 3: An amino acid produced using biotechnology is:
a) Antibiotic b) A growth hormone c) Insulin d) Glycine e) Leukocyte interferon Entry level (1 point)
Task 4: Enzymes used to synthesize an RNA molecule using DNA as a template -
a) Restriction enzymes b) Ligases c) Endonucleases d) Polymerases Entry level (1 point)
Task 5: The pressure difference between rooms of different cleanliness classes is created for:
a) Creating staff comfort b) Facilitating technological operations c) Reducing the risk of contamination (contamination) of the manufactured product d) Automatic closing of doors for the clean room Entry level (1 point)
Task 6: Activation of the process of synthesis of a secondary metabolite (target product) - an antibiotic - occurs by:
a) Inhibition of the main enzyme responsible for the process of amino acid synthesis b) Suppression (repression) of the entire enzyme complex of enzymes responsible for the process of amino acid synthesis c) Activation of the transcription process d) Activation of the translation process e) Repression of the transcription process Intermediate level (3 points)
Task 7: Enzymes can be immobilized by the following physical methods:
a) Covalent bonding b) Linking enzyme molecules together c) Encapsulation d) Inclusions in liposomes Intermediate level (3 points)
Biology
Task 9: Determine the total number of chromosomes in 100 cells of an animal at the metaphase stage, if it is known that the karyotype of Drosophila melanogaster has 4 pairs of chromosomes.
a) 800 b) 400 c) 80 d) 1200 e) 40 Entry level (1 point)
Task 10: The spermatid of the model animal Drosophila melanogaster contains the following set of chromosomes:
a) nc b) n2c c) 2n2c d) 2n4c e) 4n4c Entry level (1 point)
Task 11: Fungi of the genus Aspergillus during an experiment with changing cultivation parameters can reproduce by:
a) Schizogony b) Parthenogenesis c) Conjugation d) Division of hyphae (mycelium) e) Formation of ascospores Intermediate level (3 points)
Genetics and heredity
Task 13: When describing a polyploid organism by specifying the number of chromosome sets, we provide a characterization of its:
a) Karyotype b) Phenotype c) Genotype d) Reaction norms e) Environmental factor Entry level (1 point)
Task 14: To conduct a study, you need a homozygous organism for a specific recessive trait. Which of the following organisms would be appropriate for your research?
a) aaBB b) AaBB c) AAVv d) AaVv e) AABB Entry level (1 point)
Task 15: In the virtual fly model, there are 8 pairs of chromosomes in the karyotype. Which karyotype represents a normal male in this virtual fly model?
a) 7A+XY b) 14A+XX c) 7A+XX d) 14A+XO e) 9A+ XY Entry level (1 point)
Task 16: Mutations that change the number of chromosomes in the karyotype include:
a) Nucleotide duplication b) Nucleotide insertion c) Deletion of the short arm of a chromosome d) 44A+XXX e) 45A+XXY f) Nucleotide deletion Intermediate level (3 points)
Task 17: During the experiment, the DNA nucleotide sequence AAAGGGCCCTTT changed to AAAGGCCCTT. Analyze the DNA sequences and determine the changes that occurred during the experiment with the hereditary material:
a) Replacement of nucleotide G with A b) Nucleotide A insertion c) Nucleotide T insertion d) Deletion of nucleotide G e) Nucleotide T deletion f) Replacement of nucleotide G with C Intermediate level (3 points)
Cell biology
Task 19: In an E. coli cell one can find:
a) Circular DNA molecule and murein protein b) Core c) Mitochondria d) Chloroplasts e) Centrioles Entry level (1 point)
Task 20: A leukocyte is characterized by the presence of:
a) Nucleus b) Chloroplasts c) Capsid d) Cellulose cell wall e) Starch grains Entry level (1 point)
Task 21: The double-membrane organelles of a eukaryotic cell are:
a) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Mitochondria c) Centriole d) Leukoplast e) Golgi complex Intermediate level (3 points)
Task 22: Growing plant tissues are:
a) Cambium b) Bone c) Meristem d) Connecting e) Nervous Intermediate level (3 points)
Ecology
Task 23: According to its functional role in the ecosystem, the tuberculosis bacillus (Koch bacillus) is classified as a consumer because it:
a) Feeds on ready-made organic matter b) Synthesizes organic substances from inorganic ones c) Releases oxygen d) Decomposes organic substances to inorganic ones e) Is the first link in the food chain Entry level (1 point)
Task 24: The habitat of the malaria plasmodium is the erythrocyte. What is special about this environment?
a) Presence of a protein-rich substrate b) Abundance of light c) Presence of oxygen d) Presence of carbon dioxide e) Presence of iron hydrogen sulfide Entry level (1 point)
Task 25: What abiotic factors can influence the development and survival of cyanobacteria on wooden surfaces of buildings?
a) Air humidity b) Impregnation of wooden surfaces with synthetic chemical agents that prevent rotting c) Sunlight d) White mold e) Putrefactive bacteria Intermediate level (3 points)
Task 26: Parasitic organisms - protozoa for humans are:
a) Guinea worm b) White planaria c) Flea d) Ascaris e) Malarial plasmodium f) Giardia Intermediate level (3 points)
Microbiology
Task 27: Which microorganisms are eukaryotes?
a) Mycoplasmas b) Ascomycetes c) Rickettsia d) Bacteriophages e) Bifidobacteria Entry level (1 point)
Task 28: The rod-shaped cells have:
a) Clostridia b) Mycoplasma c) Vibrio d) Spirochete e) L-form Entry level (1 point)
Task 29: Copying of hereditary information in bacteria occurs in the matrix known as:
a) Circular DNA molecule b) Circular RNA molecule c) Linear DNA molecule d) DNA double helix Entry level (1 point)
Task 30: To obtain a bacterial culture resistant to aerobic environmental conditions, it is necessary to use a storage medium and cultivation conditions with:
a) Increased oxygen content b) Low oxygen content c) Elevated temperature d) High blood pressure e) Low temperature Entry level (1 point)
Task 31: The plague pathogen is characterized by:
a) No core b) Presence of glycogen in the cell wall c) Spherical cell shape d) Linear DNA e) Rod-shaped cell Intermediate level (3 points)
Virology
Task 32: The Hepatitis A virus, which contains RNA, includes:
a) Chloroplasts b) Capsid c) Mitochondria d) Ribosomes e) Cell center Entry level (1 point)
Task 33: Biological model for the cultivation of the polio virus is:
a) Artificial nutrient medium b) Enriched nutrient medium c) Cell culture d) Bacteriophages e) Complex nutrient medium Entry level (1 point)
Task 34: The synthesis of bacteriophage proteins occurs at the stage of:
a) Adsorption on the cell surface b) Cell penetration c) Exit from the affected cell d) Nucleic acid synthesis e) Translation of bacteriophage components Entry level (1 point)
Task 35: To create active immunity, it is necessary to use an immunobiological preparation in the form of:
a) Viral vaccine b) Anatoxin c) Erythrocyte diagnosticum d) Allergen e) Diagnostic bacteriophage Entry level (3 points)
Biochemistry & molecular biology
Task 36: Which of the following can be found in the composition of a pyrimidine nucleotide in DNA?
a) Nitrogenous base thymine b) Monosaccharide ribose c) Monosaccharide fructose d) Nitrogenous base uracil e) Monosaccharide glucose Entry level (1 point)
Task 38: Which enzyme is required to synthesize DNA using the bacteriophage DNA strand as a template?
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) tRNA synthetase d) ATP synthetase e) Reverse transcriptase Entry level (1 point)
Task 39: During the dark phase of photosynthesis, which of the following processes occurs:
a) ATP formation b) O2 formation c) Fixation of atmospheric carbon dioxide d) Photolysis of waters e) Krebs cycle Entry level (1 point)
Task 40: The synthesis of ATP during chemosynthesis occurs in the cells of:
a) Spirogyra b) Hydrogen bacteria c) Aspergillus d) Euglena green e) Parasitic bacteria Entry level (1 point)
Task 41: The cellular immune response is formed to this intracellular pathogen:
a) Measles virus b) Tuberculosis bacillus c) Diphtheria bacillus d) Plague bacillus Entry level (1 point)
Task 42: Gonadal hormones are:
a) Somatotropin b) Insulin c) Estradiol d) Thyroxine e) Testosterone f) Glucagon Intermediate level (3 points)
Task 43: Identify substances involved in the automatic regulation of breathing frequency:
a) Norepinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Vitamins d) Digestive enzymes e) Bile f) Mucin Intermediate level (3 points)
Task 44: Digestive enzymes that break down carbohydrates are:
a) Lipase b) Maltase c) Mucin d) Amylase e) Trypsin f) Chymotrypsin Intermediate level (3 points)
